Submitted by meellowstar t3_10u9kid in askscience
I'm sitting on my thesis for my history class for uni and analyzing some old local policies from 1718 (from a city government in Palatinate, germany) , which told the citizens to bring a light source with them if they wanted to go outside after a specific point in time in the evening. I was a little bit confused about the determined point of time, being 10pm in summer and 8pm in winter. I thought, why would they set the time that late in winter? Where I live in December at 5pm it's already dark outside. Why force the people to carry a lightsource not until 8pm? Why not already at 5pm when it's already dark especially without having electrical light at that time. That applies to the summer time as well? Why having to bring a lit lantern at 10pm when there is still enough daylight so you wouldn't need a lantern. At least from todays perspective. And on top of that it's even more confusing if you take in account that we have winter and summer time. In the past winter time would be the normal time (UTC+1). Hence my question: How consistent is the yearly cycle of varying daylight duration from day to day throughout the year in a historical view? Was it the same in 16th century as today? Did it change throughout the millenia? And if so, how much did it change?
AllenRBrady t1_j7bvkb8 wrote
I would consider the possibility that the local government was still using an antiquated system of measuring hours. Prior to the widespread adoption of mechanical clocks, hours were not a fixed length. Dawn to dusk was considered daytime, and dusk to dawn was considered night, and each was divided into 12 hours. The first canonical hour of the day was called Prime, and corresponded to 6am. When the sun was overhead, it was Sext. When the sun set, it was Vespers. The duration between Prime and Vespers was divided into 12 hours, regardless of how long daylight actually lasted. So in the summer, daytime hours were longer than nighttime hours, and in the winter, that was reversed.
That system was dominant throughout Europe until around 1600, when mechanical clocks finally became prevalent enough to replace older options like sundials. It seems possible to me that, by the early 1700s, certain jurisdictions might have still been working out the whole concept that all hours were the same length, and 8pm was daytime in summer and nighttime in winter. It's possible that the ordnance you refer to assumed 8pm was "a short time after sunset", while 10pm was "a long while after sunset, but not yet midnight."