rejectednocomments

rejectednocomments t1_jdsjfjf wrote

If you actually read what he says, Huemer is offering a refutation of hard determinism, by which he means the view that no one could act otherwise. He evenly explicitly says he is not objecting to compatibilism (since compatibilists don’t deny the ability to do otherwise, but simply analyze it in a way consistent with determinism).

So, read the argument with that conclusion in mind.

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rejectednocomments t1_jc1yh45 wrote

The author.

Okay, when you have one slit open and fire a photon or an electron or whatever, you get a dot on the screen on the other side. When you have the other slit open, you get a dot in a different location. If you have both slits open, you don’t get either dot, but instead a band suggesting a wave.

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rejectednocomments t1_jc1w5ve wrote

I read that. Where is the violation of PNC? Asserting that there’s a contradiction doesn’t mean there is one.

Take wave-particle duality as an example. There are experiments where light behaves as a wave, and some where it behaves like a particle. But none where it behaves as both! How to understand this is a good question, but it’s a big leap to just assume a violation of PNC.

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rejectednocomments t1_jc1lwes wrote

“Truth is a criterion by which we judge a proposition, or a quality by which we determine a proposition to be factual”

This is conflating a theory of truth with a theory of it’s assertability, or the basis on which we say or judge something to be true.

You might think this is minor, and it may end up being irrelevant to the point, but I people would stop making such stupid mistakes.

Continuing, if quantum mechanics genuinely entails violation of the principle of noncontradiction, QM belongs in the trash heap, unless you can explain how I’m supposed to be able to countenance such violations.

None of the examples presented violate PNC anyways. While there was a movement to modify logic based on QM, denting PNC wasn’t part of it, and anyways that movement has largely been abandoned.

Russell’s paradox shows that Frege’s axioms are wrong, not that every axiom system will be paradoxical.

Way too much of this is just sloppy and wrong.

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rejectednocomments t1_jbm51q0 wrote

I think there’s a big leap here.

So our senses aren’t entirely reliable, and it’s conceivable that we experience colors differently. Is reality itself called into question by this!

Has any doubt been raised about wavelengths of light? Or minds?

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rejectednocomments t1_jblb5n7 wrote

Okay. Basic idea: free will is the ability to do other than expected, where the expect-or is Laplace’s demon. Some human actions meet this condition, because the human brain is an undecidable computational system.

I had a couple of issues.

First, intuitively free will involves the possibility of any of multiple courses of action (looking in the future direction, to use the language is the article). The objection to this in the article is basically, when you’re making the choice, you’re only doing one thing. So, it doesn’t make sense to say there are multiple possibilities open to you. To the contrary, we can say that at time t1, it is possible that at time t2 I am doing A, or that I am doing B, whereas at time t2 it is only possible that I am doing 1.

But I don’t think that matters much, since the project is still interesting.

Second, key to establishing that the human brain is an undefinable computational system is the claim that the brain has infinite state spaces. This is supported by the fact that we can conceive of the natural numbers, which are infinite.

I’m not convinced that this means the human brain has infinite state spaces. We never conceive of each natural number itself. What is true is that for any of we can conceive of any of an infinite number of sets of numbers, but each of those will be of finite size. It is also true that we can think such terms “as infinite”, and various associated ideas, “1-to-1 mapping onto the natural numbers” for instance, but everything we’re ever actually thinking is finite.

Basically, it’s possible to represent some facts about infinite sets with finite information, which seems to be what we actually do.

As an additional comment, the article also contained a discussion of human decision-making being self-referential. It’s a bit long, but you may want to check out this talk by Jenann Ismael, in which she makes the self-referential aspect of decision-making key to an account of free will.

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rejectednocomments t1_jbj0l51 wrote

The objection was why care about truth if we can’t get to it?

Now, I never said all truths are inaccessible, only that perhaps some are.

So the objection is: why care about truth if some truths may be inaccessible?

My response is: this doesn’t change whether or not the way some things are might be inaccessible to us, and so we want a term for the way things are which applies in the those cases too. I think the term for that is “truth”, but I’ll go with another if you really insist on using it differently.

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rejectednocomments t1_jbgs6l2 wrote

Well, I want some term which is correctly applied to a statement in case things are as that statement says they are.

If you want to use “truth” in some other way, I guess I can’t stop you. But I still want a term with such a meaning.

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rejectednocomments t1_jbfwtm6 wrote

No.

There is no good reason to think “what is true” is the same as “what I can possibly know to be true”. It may simply be that there are things which I cannot know.

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rejectednocomments t1_jbfl2an wrote

So his rejection of the correspondence theory is just a conflation of a claim’s between being true and being known to be true.

“How do we know what is true?” And “How do we determine wha this true?” are important questions, but they aren’t the same as “what is truth?”

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