Submitted by AutoModerator t3_yalwt6 in history
TheRichTurner t1_itnp23z wrote
I found a map online, dated from 1583, which shows the area of Norfolk where I live (Guiltcross) as part of Suffolk. All maps from before and after this date have the area as part of S. Norfolk.
The map was an official document commissioned by Lord Burleigh on behalf of Elizabeth I.
I know that Elizabeth I and Mary Tudor both lived at different times in Kenninghall Place (shown on the map as "Keanygale") which was the seat of the Duke of Norfolk, and I wonder if that might be something to do with it.
Does anyone have an idea why a part of Norfolk would briefly become a part of Suffolk in the late 16th century?
jezreelite t1_itnshir wrote
It's probably has something to do with the fact that the title of Duke of Norfolk was revoked after Thomas Howard, 4th Duke of Norfolk, was executed for treason in 1572.
The title would not be restored until 1660 when it was regranted to Thomas Howard, 5th Duke of Norfolk, a descendant of the fourth duke's younger son, Thomas Howard, 1st Earl of Suffolk.
TheRichTurner t1_itntrmi wrote
Thank you. That was quick!
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