Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments

NecrisRO t1_j9subty wrote

Yeah, something isn't right about the data, if they have the son of X rich guy with 1000 homes and 1000 dudes with no home and average that as 100% ownership ? Because I have a hunch that's what's happening here.

−6

Jonsj t1_j9t5j7d wrote

That would not average to 100% ownership, it would average to 1 home per person, very different.

The statistic would read 0,1% home ownership.

10

Jerund t1_j9u34ye wrote

Exactly. If one person owns ten homes. You aren’t counted as ten homeowner. You would just be counted as 1 homeowner.

2