Submitted by squidwards_noze t3_127vtaj in explainlikeimfive
So I understand that there are time zones and the time at any given moment varies across locations, BUT is there a more subtle difference from place to place? For example, does southern California and northern California have like a time difference of a couple seconds or something like that? Is every location, no matter how far from each other, slightly different? Because, for me, it doesn't make sense that there is just some line that you cross and all of a sudden you're 1 hour ahead or 2 hours ahead etc.
schoolme_straying t1_jeg2ui1 wrote
Each location has its own local time. This didn't matter for most of history.
Once we had trains there was a need to ensure that clocks were synchronised to ensure that trains departed at the same time for everyone concerned. These times meant there was a need to have standardised time over a large area.
WWI in Germany saw the need to make maximum use of available daylight in factories and this practice of daylight saving was quickly adopted in high latitude locations. In equatorial locations there is no point in daylight saving as sunrise and sunset don't vary much throughout the year.