Submitted by NeedleworkerCapital8 t3_111lkt7 in askscience
To my limited understanding of this process, early during embryonic development there is a random inactivation of an X chromosome out of the pair that a female inherits. My question is: Why does this inactivation occur? We also inherit a pair of autosomes so why isn't there inactivation happening to one of them and this is only specific to the X pair, i saw some answers that say "So females dont have double the proteins coded by the X pair" but wouldn't allele dominance solve that? Is it way more complex than that?
My understanding is very elementary so i hope you bear with me, thanks in advance.
SignalDifficult5061 t1_j8gunf0 wrote
Dosage compensation. Autosomes are always at two copies, the X chromosome can be one or two. "Bad" recessive genes on an autosome can be masked to varying degrees by good copies. It makes more sense to have two copies rather than one for the most part for everything with paired chromosomes apparently.
The "dosage" for a XY chromsome carrier and XX chromosome carrier is kept even by an X chromosome inactivation.
There are other ways around this that could have evolved, but this is what we have.
Bacteria often have multiple copies of their genome, which can vary wildly depending on growth state and other things, so they have other compensatory systems.
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To be nit picky, there is a pseudo-autosomal portion of the Y chromosome, and there are a small amount of genes that aren't inactivated on the "inactive" X.